Q. Why does Isaiah 40:3 (NIV) say, “A voice of one calling: ‘In the wilderness prepare the way for the LORD; make straight in the desert a highway for our God’ while all in the gospel books, it says: “A voice of one calling in the wilderness, ‘Prepare the way for the Lord, make straight paths for him.’” (Matthew 3:3, Mark 1:3, Luke 3:4, John 1:23)
Does wilderness refer to where John the Baptist was speaking, or does it refer to where he should prepare the way for the Lord? Is the NIV translation wrong? The NASB1995 version says, “A voice is calling, Clear the way for the Lord in the wilderness; Make smooth in the desert a highway for our God.”
Translators are divided into how they should treat “in the wilderness.” Does it describe the location to prepare the way, or where the voice was calling? The following versions are some examples.
Where to prepare the way | Where was the voice calling |
ESV: A voice cries: “In the wilderness prepare the way of the Lord; make straight in the desert a highway for our God. | NKJV: The voice of one crying in the wilderness: “Prepare the way of the Lord; Make straight in the desert A highway for our God. |
NASB: The voice of one calling out, “Clear the way for the Lord in the wilderness; Make straight in the desert a highway for our God. | GW: A voice cries out in the desert: “Clear a way for the Lord. Make a straight highway in the wilderness for our God. |
NIV: A voice of one calling: “In the wilderness prepare the way for the Lord; make straight in the desert a highway for our God. | LEB: A voice is calling in the wilderness, “Clear the way of Yahweh! Make a highway smooth in the desert for our God! |
Those who favor the former base their opinion on the Hebrew accents, which link “wilderness” to “the way.” A second reason is Hebrew parallelism, where “in the wilderness prepare the way” parallel “make straight a highway in the desert.” Those who favor the latter base their choice on the Septuagint (LXX, the translation of the Hebrew OT into Greek), which links wilderness to “the voice.” Which is correct? Based on their rationale alone, the argument is stronger for the former. However, as you pointed out, all four Gospels link wilderness to “the voice crying”:
- Mt 3:3 For this is the one referred to by Isaiah the prophet when he said, “The voice of one crying in the wilderness, ‘Make ready the way of the Lord, Make His paths straight!’”
- Mk 1:3 The voice of one crying in the wilderness, ‘Make ready the way of the Lord, Make His paths straight.’”
- Lk 3:4 As it is written in the book of the words of Isaiah the prophet, “The voice of one crying in the wilderness, ‘Make ready the way of the Lord, Make His paths straight.
- Jn 1:23 He said, “I am a voice of one crying in the wilderness, ‘Make straight the way of the Lord,’ as Isaiah the prophet said.”
Apparently, the evangelists saw something more in Isa 40:3 than “in the wilderness prepare the way.” Some suggested that they see John the Baptist, the Lord’s herald, as not preparing a physical highway, but a figurative way amid barren hearts lacking interest in spiritual matters. While the LXX translation was not inspired, the four gospels were inspired by the Holy Spirit. So both ways of translating Isa 40:3 are valid. Neither the NIV nor the NKJV is wrong.